Summary
72%
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Pharmacokinetic
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0% | ||||||||||
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| Amiodarone | |||||||||||
| Clarithromycin | |||||||||||
| Scores | -15% | ||||||||||
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
|
QT time prolongation
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Anticholinergic effects
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Serotonergic effects
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Adverse drug events
|
-13% | ||||||||||
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Nausea | |||||||||||
| Vomiting | |||||||||||
| Disorder of taste | |||||||||||
Variants ✨
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Intended use
Explanations of the substances for patients
Pharmacokinetics
-0%
| ∑ Exposurea | ami | cla | |
|---|---|---|---|
| Amiodarone | n.a. | n.a. | |
| Clarithromycin | 1.29 | 1.29 |
Symbol (a): x-fold change in AUC
Legend (n.a.): Information not available
Legend (n.a.): Information not available
The changes in exposure mentioned relate to changes in the plasma concentration-time curve [AUC]. We did not detect any change in exposure to amiodarone. We cannot currently estimate the influence of clarithromycin. Clarithromycin exposure increases to 129%, when combined with amiodarone (129%).
Rating:
The pharmacokinetic parameters of the average population are used as the starting point for calculating the individual changes in exposure due to the interactions.
Amiodarone has a mean oral bioavailability [ F ] of 55%, which is why the maximum plasma levels [Cmax] tend to change with an interaction. The terminal half-life [ t12 ] is rather long at 1884 hours and constant plasma levels [ Css ] are only reached after more than 7536 hours. The protein binding [ Pb ] is 96% strong. The metabolism takes place via CYP2C8 and CYP3A4, among others and the active transport takes place in particular via PGP.
Clarithromycin has a mean oral bioavailability [ F ] of 53%, which is why the maximum plasma levels [Cmax] tend to change with an interaction. The terminal half-life [ t12 ] is rather short at 4.6 hours and constant plasma levels [ Css ] are reached quickly. The protein binding [ Pb ] is rather weak at 70% and the volume of distribution [ Vd ] is very large at 176 liters. Since the substance has a low hepatic extraction rate of 0.13, displacement from protein binding [Pb] in the context of an interaction can increase exposure. About 27.5% of an administered dose is excreted unchanged via the kidneys and this proportion is seldom changed by interactions. The metabolism mainly takes place via CYP3A4 and the active transport takes place in particular via PGP.
Serotonergic effects
-0%
| Scores | ∑ Points | ami | cla |
|---|---|---|---|
| Serotonergic Effects a | 0 | Ø | Ø |
Symbol (a): Increased risk from 5 points.
Rating: According to our knowledge, neither amiodarone nor clarithromycin increase serotonergic activity.
Anticholinergic effects
-0%
| Scores | ∑ Points | ami | cla |
|---|---|---|---|
| Kiesel b | 0 | Ø | Ø |
Symbol (b): Increased risk from 3 points.
Rating: According to our findings, neither amiodarone nor clarithromycin increase anticholinergic activity.
QT time prolongation
-18%
| Scores | ∑ Points | ami | cla |
|---|---|---|---|
| RISK-PATH c | 6 | +++ | +++ |
Symbol (c): Increased risk from 10 points. Questions about risk factors should be answered.
Recommendation:
In order to be able to estimate the individual risk for arrhythmias, we recommend that you answer the following
Rating: In combination, amiodarone and clarithromycin can potentially trigger ventricular arrhythmias of the torsades de pointes type.
General adverse effects
-13%
| Side effects | ∑ frequency | ami | cla |
|---|---|---|---|
| Nausea | 33.7 % | 21.5 | 15.5 |
| Vomiting | 31.7 % | 21.5 | 13.0 |
| Disorder of taste | 13.5 % | n.a. | 13.5 |
| Hypothyroidism | 10.0 % | 10.0 | n.a. |
| Headache | 9.0 % | n.a. | 9.0 |
| Photosensitivity | 6.5 % | 6.5 | n.a. |
| Constipation | 6.5 % | 6.5 | n.a. |
| Loss of appetite | 6.5 % | 6.5 | n.a. |
| Ataxia | 6.5 % | 6.5 | n.a. |
| Coordination problem | 6.5 % | 6.5 | n.a. |
Tabular extract of the most common side effects
Sign (+): side effect described, but frequency not known
Sign (↑/↓): frequency rather higher / lower due to exposure
Sign (+): side effect described, but frequency not known
Sign (↑/↓): frequency rather higher / lower due to exposure
Neurological
Dizziness (6.5%): amiodarone
Paresthesia (6.5%): amiodarone
Peripheral neuropathy: amiodarone
Insomnia: clarithromycin
Pseudotumor cerebri: amiodarone
Ophthalmological
Blurred vision (6.5%): amiodarone
Optic neuritis: amiodarone
Visual loss: amiodarone
Gastrointestinal
Diarrhea (5.5%): clarithromycin
Abdominal pain (4.5%): clarithromycin
Dyspepsis (4%): clarithromycin
Clostridium difficile diarrhea: clarithromycin
Endocrine
Hyperthyroidism (2%): amiodarone
Respiratory
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (2%): amiodarone
Pulmonary fibrosis: amiodarone
Cardiac
Hypotension: amiodarone
Bradycardia: amiodarone
Heart failure: amiodarone
Ventricular arrhythmia: amiodarone
Dermatological
Stevens johnson syndrome: amiodarone, clarithromycin
Toxic epidermal necrolysis: amiodarone, clarithromycin
Hematological
Thrombocytopenia: amiodarone
Eosinophilia: clarithromycin
Leukopenia: clarithromycin
Neutropenia: clarithromycin
Hepatic
Hepatotoxicity: amiodarone, clarithromycin
Cholestatic hepatitis: clarithromycin
Pancreatitis: clarithromycin
Immunological
Hypersensitivity reaction: amiodarone
Anaphylactic reaction: clarithromycin
Renal
Renal failure: amiodarone
Vascular
Vasculitis: amiodarone
Musculoskeletal
Rhabdomyolysis: clarithromycin
Limitations
Based on your
References
Authors: Middlekauff HR Stevenson WG Saxon LA Stevenson LW
Abstract: Amiodarone is considered to be safe in patients with prior QT prolongation and torsades de pointes taking class I antiarrhythmic agents who require continued antiarrhythmic drug therapy. However, the safety of amiodarone in advanced heart failure patients with a history of drug-induced torsades de pointes, who may be more susceptible to proarrhythmia, is unknown. Therefore, the objective of this study was to assess amiodarone safety and efficacy in heart failure patients with prior antiarrhythmic drug-induced torsades de pointes. We determined the history of torsades de pointes in 205 patients with heart failure treated with amiodarone, and compared the risk of sudden death in patients with and without such a history. To evaluate the possibility that all patients with a history of torsades de pointes would be at high risk for sudden death regardless of amiodarone treatment, we compared this risk in patients with a history of torsades de pointes who were and were not subsequently treated with amiodarone. Of 205 patients with advanced heart failure, 8 (4%) treated with amiodarone had prior drug-induced torsades de pointes. Despite similar severity of heart failure, the 1-year actuarial sudden death risk was markedly increased in amiodarone patients with than without prior torsades de pointes (55% vs 15%, p = 0.0001). Similarly, the incidence of 1-year sudden death was markedly increased in patients with prior torsades de pointes taking amiodarone compared with such patients who were not subsequently treated with amiodarone (55% vs 0%, p = 0.09).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)
Pubmed Id: 7653452
Abstract: Amiodarone is considered to be safe in patients with prior QT prolongation and torsades de pointes taking class I antiarrhythmic agents who require continued antiarrhythmic drug therapy. However, the safety of amiodarone in advanced heart failure patients with a history of drug-induced torsades de pointes, who may be more susceptible to proarrhythmia, is unknown. Therefore, the objective of this study was to assess amiodarone safety and efficacy in heart failure patients with prior antiarrhythmic drug-induced torsades de pointes. We determined the history of torsades de pointes in 205 patients with heart failure treated with amiodarone, and compared the risk of sudden death in patients with and without such a history. To evaluate the possibility that all patients with a history of torsades de pointes would be at high risk for sudden death regardless of amiodarone treatment, we compared this risk in patients with a history of torsades de pointes who were and were not subsequently treated with amiodarone. Of 205 patients with advanced heart failure, 8 (4%) treated with amiodarone had prior drug-induced torsades de pointes. Despite similar severity of heart failure, the 1-year actuarial sudden death risk was markedly increased in amiodarone patients with than without prior torsades de pointes (55% vs 15%, p = 0.0001). Similarly, the incidence of 1-year sudden death was markedly increased in patients with prior torsades de pointes taking amiodarone compared with such patients who were not subsequently treated with amiodarone (55% vs 0%, p = 0.09).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)
Authors: Amsden GW
Abstract: Erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin are clinically effective for the treatment of common respiratory and skin/skin-structure infections. Erythromycin and azithromycin are also effective for treatment of nongonococcal urethritis and cervicitis due to Chlamydia trachomatis. Compared with erythromycin, clarithromycin and azithromycin offer improved tolerability. Clarithromycin, however, is more similar to erythromycin in pharmacokinetic measures such as half-life, tissue distribution, and drug interactions. Misunderstandings about differences among the macrolides (erythromycin and clarithromycin) and the azalide (azithromycin) in terms of pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics, spectrum of activity, safety, and cost are common. The uptake and release of these compounds by white blood cells and fibroblasts account for differences in tissue half-life, volume of distribution, intracellular:extracellular ratio, and in vivo potency. Although microbiologic studies reveal that gram-positive pathogens are equally susceptible to these agents, significantly more isolates of Haemophilus influenzae are susceptible to azithromycin than to erythromycin or clarithromycin. Concentrations achieved at the infection site and duration above the minimum inhibitory concentration are as important as in vitro activity in determining in vivo activity against bacterial pathogens. Analysis of safety data indicates differences among these agents in drug interactions and use in pregnancy. Analysis of safety data reveals pharmacokinetic drug interactions for erythromycin and clarithromycin with theophylline, terfenadine, and carbamazepine that are not found with azithromycin. Both erythromycin and azithromycin are pregnancy category B drugs; clarithromycin is a category C drug. The numerous differences in pharmacokinetics, microbiology, safety, and costs among erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin can be used in the judicious selection of treatment for indicated infections.
Pubmed Id: 8851453
Abstract: Erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin are clinically effective for the treatment of common respiratory and skin/skin-structure infections. Erythromycin and azithromycin are also effective for treatment of nongonococcal urethritis and cervicitis due to Chlamydia trachomatis. Compared with erythromycin, clarithromycin and azithromycin offer improved tolerability. Clarithromycin, however, is more similar to erythromycin in pharmacokinetic measures such as half-life, tissue distribution, and drug interactions. Misunderstandings about differences among the macrolides (erythromycin and clarithromycin) and the azalide (azithromycin) in terms of pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics, spectrum of activity, safety, and cost are common. The uptake and release of these compounds by white blood cells and fibroblasts account for differences in tissue half-life, volume of distribution, intracellular:extracellular ratio, and in vivo potency. Although microbiologic studies reveal that gram-positive pathogens are equally susceptible to these agents, significantly more isolates of Haemophilus influenzae are susceptible to azithromycin than to erythromycin or clarithromycin. Concentrations achieved at the infection site and duration above the minimum inhibitory concentration are as important as in vitro activity in determining in vivo activity against bacterial pathogens. Analysis of safety data indicates differences among these agents in drug interactions and use in pregnancy. Analysis of safety data reveals pharmacokinetic drug interactions for erythromycin and clarithromycin with theophylline, terfenadine, and carbamazepine that are not found with azithromycin. Both erythromycin and azithromycin are pregnancy category B drugs; clarithromycin is a category C drug. The numerous differences in pharmacokinetics, microbiology, safety, and costs among erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin can be used in the judicious selection of treatment for indicated infections.
Authors: Cheng KL Nafziger AN Peloquin CA Amsden GW
Abstract: To investigate whether grapefruit juice inhibits the metabolism of clarithromycin, 12 healthy subjects were given water or grapefruit juice before and after a clarithromycin dose of 500 mg in a randomized crossover study. Administration of grapefruit juice increased the time to peak concentration of both clarithromycin (82 +/- 35 versus 148 +/- 83 min; P = 0.02) and 14-hydroxyclarithromycin (84 +/- 38 min versus 173 +/- 85; P = 0.01) but did not affect other pharmacokinetic parameters.
Pubmed Id: 9559810
Abstract: To investigate whether grapefruit juice inhibits the metabolism of clarithromycin, 12 healthy subjects were given water or grapefruit juice before and after a clarithromycin dose of 500 mg in a randomized crossover study. Administration of grapefruit juice increased the time to peak concentration of both clarithromycin (82 +/- 35 versus 148 +/- 83 min; P = 0.02) and 14-hydroxyclarithromycin (84 +/- 38 min versus 173 +/- 85; P = 0.01) but did not affect other pharmacokinetic parameters.
Authors: Rodvold KA
Abstract: Clarithromycin is a macrolide antibacterial that differs in chemical structure from erythromycin by the methylation of the hydroxyl group at position 6 on the lactone ring. The pharmacokinetic advantages that clarithromycin has over erythromycin include increased oral bioavailability (52 to 55%), increased plasma concentrations (mean maximum concentrations ranged from 1.01 to 1.52 mg/L and 2.41 to 2.85 mg/L after multiple 250 and 500 mg doses, respectively), and a longer elimination half-life (3.3 to 4.9 hours) to allow twice daily administration. In addition, clarithromycin has extensive diffusion into saliva, sputum, lung tissue, epithelial lining fluid, alveolar macrophages, neutrophils, tonsils, nasal mucosa and middle ear fluid. Clarithromycin is primarily metabolised by cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A isozymes and has an active metabolite, 14-hydroxyclarithromycin. The reported mean values of total body clearance and renal clearance in adults have ranged from 29.2 to 58.1 L/h and 6.7 to 12.8 L/h, respectively. In patients with severe renal impairment, increased plasma concentrations and a prolonged elimination half-life for clarithromycin and its metabolite have been reported. A dosage adjustment for clarithromycin should be considered in patients with a creatinine clearance < 1.8 L/h. The recommended goal for dosage regimens of clarithromycin is to ensure that the time that unbound drug concentrations in the blood remains above the minimum inhibitory concentration is at least 40 to 60% of the dosage interval. However, the concentrations and in vitro activity of 14-hydroxyclarithromycin must be considered for pathogens such as Haemophilus influenzae. In addition, clarithromycin achieves significantly higher drug concentrations in the epithelial lining fluid and alveolar macrophages, the potential sites of extracellular and intracellular respiratory tract pathogens, respectively. Further studies are needed to determine the importance of these concentrations of clarithromycin at the site of infection. Clarithromycin can increase the steady-state concentrations of drugs that are primarily depend upon CYP3A metabolism (e.g., astemidole, cisapride, pimozide, midazolam and triazolam). This can be clinically important for drugs that have a narrow therapeutic index, such as carbamazepine, cyclosporin, digoxin, theophylline and warfarin. Potent inhibitors of CYP3A (e.g., omeprazole and ritonavir) may also alter the metabolism of clarithromycin and its metabolites. Rifampicin (rifampin) and rifabutin are potent enzyme inducers and several small studies have suggested that these agents may significantly decrease serum clarithromycin concentrations. Overall, the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic studies suggest that fewer serious drug interactions occur with clarithromycin compared with older macrolides such as erythromycin and troleandomycin.
Pubmed Id: 10589373
Abstract: Clarithromycin is a macrolide antibacterial that differs in chemical structure from erythromycin by the methylation of the hydroxyl group at position 6 on the lactone ring. The pharmacokinetic advantages that clarithromycin has over erythromycin include increased oral bioavailability (52 to 55%), increased plasma concentrations (mean maximum concentrations ranged from 1.01 to 1.52 mg/L and 2.41 to 2.85 mg/L after multiple 250 and 500 mg doses, respectively), and a longer elimination half-life (3.3 to 4.9 hours) to allow twice daily administration. In addition, clarithromycin has extensive diffusion into saliva, sputum, lung tissue, epithelial lining fluid, alveolar macrophages, neutrophils, tonsils, nasal mucosa and middle ear fluid. Clarithromycin is primarily metabolised by cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A isozymes and has an active metabolite, 14-hydroxyclarithromycin. The reported mean values of total body clearance and renal clearance in adults have ranged from 29.2 to 58.1 L/h and 6.7 to 12.8 L/h, respectively. In patients with severe renal impairment, increased plasma concentrations and a prolonged elimination half-life for clarithromycin and its metabolite have been reported. A dosage adjustment for clarithromycin should be considered in patients with a creatinine clearance < 1.8 L/h. The recommended goal for dosage regimens of clarithromycin is to ensure that the time that unbound drug concentrations in the blood remains above the minimum inhibitory concentration is at least 40 to 60% of the dosage interval. However, the concentrations and in vitro activity of 14-hydroxyclarithromycin must be considered for pathogens such as Haemophilus influenzae. In addition, clarithromycin achieves significantly higher drug concentrations in the epithelial lining fluid and alveolar macrophages, the potential sites of extracellular and intracellular respiratory tract pathogens, respectively. Further studies are needed to determine the importance of these concentrations of clarithromycin at the site of infection. Clarithromycin can increase the steady-state concentrations of drugs that are primarily depend upon CYP3A metabolism (e.g., astemidole, cisapride, pimozide, midazolam and triazolam). This can be clinically important for drugs that have a narrow therapeutic index, such as carbamazepine, cyclosporin, digoxin, theophylline and warfarin. Potent inhibitors of CYP3A (e.g., omeprazole and ritonavir) may also alter the metabolism of clarithromycin and its metabolites. Rifampicin (rifampin) and rifabutin are potent enzyme inducers and several small studies have suggested that these agents may significantly decrease serum clarithromycin concentrations. Overall, the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic studies suggest that fewer serious drug interactions occur with clarithromycin compared with older macrolides such as erythromycin and troleandomycin.
Authors: Kamochi H Nii T Eguchi K Mori T Yamamoto A Shimoda K Ibaraki K
Abstract: Two cases of QT prolongation and torsades de pointes (TdP) are presented. The patients had been taking clarithromycin (400 mg/day) for respiratory disease. Although erythromycin is reportedly associated with TdP, this is the first report of clarithromycin associated with TdP in the absence of other drugs already known to produce QT prolongation.
Pubmed Id: 10943628
Abstract: Two cases of QT prolongation and torsades de pointes (TdP) are presented. The patients had been taking clarithromycin (400 mg/day) for respiratory disease. Although erythromycin is reportedly associated with TdP, this is the first report of clarithromycin associated with TdP in the absence of other drugs already known to produce QT prolongation.
Authors: Togami K Hayashi Y Chono S Morimoto K
Abstract: The involvement of intestinal permeability in the oral absorption of clarithromycin (CAM), a macrolide antibiotic, and telithromycin (TEL), a ketolide antibiotic, in the presence of efflux transporters was examined. In order independently to examine the intestinal and hepatic availability, CAM and TEL (10 mg/kg) were administered orally, intraportally and intravenously to rats. The intestinal and hepatic availability was calculated from the area under the plasma concentration-time curve (AUC) after administration of CAM and TEL via different routes. The intestinal availabilities of CAM and TEL were lower than their hepatic availabilities. The intestinal availability after oral administration of CAM and TEL increased by 1.3- and 1.6-fold, respectively, after concomitant oral administration of verapamil as a P-glycoprotein (P-gp) inhibitor. Further, an in vitro transport experiment was performed using Caco-2 cell monolayers as a model of intestinal epithelial cells. The apical-to-basolateral transport of CAM and TEL through the Caco-2 cell monolayers was lower than their basolateral-to-apical transport. Verapamil and bromosulfophthalein as a multidrug resistance-associated proteins (MRPs) inhibitor significantly increased the apical-to-basolateral transport of CAM and TEL. Thus, the results suggest that oral absorption of CAM and TEL is dependent on intestinal permeability that may be limited by P-gp and MRPs on the intestinal epithelial cells.
Pubmed Id: 24801141
Abstract: The involvement of intestinal permeability in the oral absorption of clarithromycin (CAM), a macrolide antibiotic, and telithromycin (TEL), a ketolide antibiotic, in the presence of efflux transporters was examined. In order independently to examine the intestinal and hepatic availability, CAM and TEL (10 mg/kg) were administered orally, intraportally and intravenously to rats. The intestinal and hepatic availability was calculated from the area under the plasma concentration-time curve (AUC) after administration of CAM and TEL via different routes. The intestinal availabilities of CAM and TEL were lower than their hepatic availabilities. The intestinal availability after oral administration of CAM and TEL increased by 1.3- and 1.6-fold, respectively, after concomitant oral administration of verapamil as a P-glycoprotein (P-gp) inhibitor. Further, an in vitro transport experiment was performed using Caco-2 cell monolayers as a model of intestinal epithelial cells. The apical-to-basolateral transport of CAM and TEL through the Caco-2 cell monolayers was lower than their basolateral-to-apical transport. Verapamil and bromosulfophthalein as a multidrug resistance-associated proteins (MRPs) inhibitor significantly increased the apical-to-basolateral transport of CAM and TEL. Thus, the results suggest that oral absorption of CAM and TEL is dependent on intestinal permeability that may be limited by P-gp and MRPs on the intestinal epithelial cells.
Authors: Ivanyuk A Livio F Biollaz J Buclin T
Abstract: Transporters in proximal renal tubules contribute to the disposition of numerous drugs. Furthermore, the molecular mechanisms of tubular secretion have been progressively elucidated during the past decades. Organic anions tend to be secreted by the transport proteins OAT1, OAT3 and OATP4C1 on the basolateral side of tubular cells, and multidrug resistance protein (MRP) 2, MRP4, OATP1A2 and breast cancer resistance protein (BCRP) on the apical side. Organic cations are secreted by organic cation transporter (OCT) 2 on the basolateral side, and multidrug and toxic compound extrusion (MATE) proteins MATE1, MATE2/2-K, P-glycoprotein, organic cation and carnitine transporter (OCTN) 1 and OCTN2 on the apical side. Significant drug-drug interactions (DDIs) may affect any of these transporters, altering the clearance and, consequently, the efficacy and/or toxicity of substrate drugs. Interactions at the level of basolateral transporters typically decrease the clearance of the victim drug, causing higher systemic exposure. Interactions at the apical level can also lower drug clearance, but may be associated with higher renal toxicity, due to intracellular accumulation. Whereas the importance of glomerular filtration in drug disposition is largely appreciated among clinicians, DDIs involving renal transporters are less well recognized. This review summarizes current knowledge on the roles, quantitative importance and clinical relevance of these transporters in drug therapy. It proposes an approach based on substrate-inhibitor associations for predicting potential tubular-based DDIs and preventing their adverse consequences. We provide a comprehensive list of known drug interactions with renally-expressed transporters. While many of these interactions have limited clinical consequences, some involving high-risk drugs (e.g. methotrexate) definitely deserve the attention of prescribers.
Pubmed Id: 28210973
Abstract: Transporters in proximal renal tubules contribute to the disposition of numerous drugs. Furthermore, the molecular mechanisms of tubular secretion have been progressively elucidated during the past decades. Organic anions tend to be secreted by the transport proteins OAT1, OAT3 and OATP4C1 on the basolateral side of tubular cells, and multidrug resistance protein (MRP) 2, MRP4, OATP1A2 and breast cancer resistance protein (BCRP) on the apical side. Organic cations are secreted by organic cation transporter (OCT) 2 on the basolateral side, and multidrug and toxic compound extrusion (MATE) proteins MATE1, MATE2/2-K, P-glycoprotein, organic cation and carnitine transporter (OCTN) 1 and OCTN2 on the apical side. Significant drug-drug interactions (DDIs) may affect any of these transporters, altering the clearance and, consequently, the efficacy and/or toxicity of substrate drugs. Interactions at the level of basolateral transporters typically decrease the clearance of the victim drug, causing higher systemic exposure. Interactions at the apical level can also lower drug clearance, but may be associated with higher renal toxicity, due to intracellular accumulation. Whereas the importance of glomerular filtration in drug disposition is largely appreciated among clinicians, DDIs involving renal transporters are less well recognized. This review summarizes current knowledge on the roles, quantitative importance and clinical relevance of these transporters in drug therapy. It proposes an approach based on substrate-inhibitor associations for predicting potential tubular-based DDIs and preventing their adverse consequences. We provide a comprehensive list of known drug interactions with renally-expressed transporters. While many of these interactions have limited clinical consequences, some involving high-risk drugs (e.g. methotrexate) definitely deserve the attention of prescribers.
Authors: Etchegoyen CV Keller GA Mrad S Cheng S Di Girolamo G
Abstract: BACKGROUND: The most common acquired cause of Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is drug induced QT interval prolongation. It is an electrophysiological entity, which is characterized by an extended duration of the ventricular repolarization. Reflected as a prolonged QT interval in a surface ECG, this syndrome increases the risk for polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (Torsade de Pointes) and sudden death. METHOD: Bibliographic databases as MEDLINE and EMBASE, reports and drug alerts from several regulatory agencies (FDA, EMEA, ANMAT) and drug safety guides (ICH S7B, ICH E14) were consulted to prepare this article. The keywords used were: polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, adverse drug events, prolonged QT, arrhythmias, intensive care unit and Torsade de Pointes. Such research involved materials produced up to December 2017. RESULTS: Because of their mechanism of action, antiarrhythmic drugs such as amiodarone, sotalol, quinidine, procainamide, verapamil and diltiazem are associated to the prolongation of the QTc interval. For this reason, they require constant monitoring when administered. Other noncardiovascular drugs that are widely used in the Intensive Care Unit (ICU), such as ondansetron, macrolide and fluoroquinolone antibiotics, typical and atypical antipsychotics agents such as haloperidol, thioridazine, and sertindole are also frequently associated with the prolongation of the QTc interval. As a consequence, critical patients should be closely followed and evaluated. CONCLUSION: ICU patients are particularly prone to experience a QTc interval prolongation mainly for two reasons. In the first place, they are exposed to certain drugs that can prolong the repolarization phase, either by their mechanism of action or through the interaction with other drugs. In the second place, the risk factors for TdP are prevalent clinical conditions among critically ill patients. As a consequence, the attending physician is expected to perform preventive monitoring and ECG checks to control the QTc interval.
Pubmed Id: 29473523
Abstract: BACKGROUND: The most common acquired cause of Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is drug induced QT interval prolongation. It is an electrophysiological entity, which is characterized by an extended duration of the ventricular repolarization. Reflected as a prolonged QT interval in a surface ECG, this syndrome increases the risk for polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (Torsade de Pointes) and sudden death. METHOD: Bibliographic databases as MEDLINE and EMBASE, reports and drug alerts from several regulatory agencies (FDA, EMEA, ANMAT) and drug safety guides (ICH S7B, ICH E14) were consulted to prepare this article. The keywords used were: polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, adverse drug events, prolonged QT, arrhythmias, intensive care unit and Torsade de Pointes. Such research involved materials produced up to December 2017. RESULTS: Because of their mechanism of action, antiarrhythmic drugs such as amiodarone, sotalol, quinidine, procainamide, verapamil and diltiazem are associated to the prolongation of the QTc interval. For this reason, they require constant monitoring when administered. Other noncardiovascular drugs that are widely used in the Intensive Care Unit (ICU), such as ondansetron, macrolide and fluoroquinolone antibiotics, typical and atypical antipsychotics agents such as haloperidol, thioridazine, and sertindole are also frequently associated with the prolongation of the QTc interval. As a consequence, critical patients should be closely followed and evaluated. CONCLUSION: ICU patients are particularly prone to experience a QTc interval prolongation mainly for two reasons. In the first place, they are exposed to certain drugs that can prolong the repolarization phase, either by their mechanism of action or through the interaction with other drugs. In the second place, the risk factors for TdP are prevalent clinical conditions among critically ill patients. As a consequence, the attending physician is expected to perform preventive monitoring and ECG checks to control the QTc interval.
Authors: Yau S Chan P Sapkin J Hsieh E
Abstract: Amiodarone is one of the most commonly used antiarrhythmic drugs. Despite its well-known side effects, amiodarone is considered to be a relatively safe drug, especially in short-term usage to prevent life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. Our case demonstrates an instance where short-term usage can yield drug side effect.
Pubmed Id: 30147903
Abstract: Amiodarone is one of the most commonly used antiarrhythmic drugs. Despite its well-known side effects, amiodarone is considered to be a relatively safe drug, especially in short-term usage to prevent life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. Our case demonstrates an instance where short-term usage can yield drug side effect.
