QT time prolongation
Adverse drug events
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Explanations of the substances for patients
We have no additional warnings for the combination of tramadol and diazepam. Please also consult the relevant specialist information.
|Tramadol||1 [0.63,3.38] 1,2||1|
|Diazepam||1 [0.83,1.53] 3||1|
The reported changes in exposure correspond to the changes in the plasma concentration-time curve [ AUC ]. We do not expect any change in exposure for tramadol, when combined with diazepam (100%). The AUC is between 63% and 338% depending on the CYP2B6, CYP2D6
The pharmacokinetic parameters of the average population are used as the starting point for calculating the individual changes in exposure due to the interactions.
Tramadol has a mean oral bioavailability [ F ] of 66%, which is why the maximum plasma levels [Cmax] tend to change with an interaction. The terminal half-life [ t12 ] is rather short at 4.5 hours and constant plasma levels [ Css ] are reached quickly. The protein binding [ Pb ] is very weak at 20% and the volume of distribution [ Vd ] is very large at 238 liters. Since the substance has a low hepatic extraction rate of 0.24, displacement from protein binding [Pb] in the context of an interaction can lead to increased exposure. About 30.0% of an administered dose is excreted unchanged via the kidneys and this proportion is seldom changed by interactions. The metabolism takes place via CYP2B6, CYP2D6 and CYP3A4, among others and the active transport takes place in particular via UGT1A1.
Diazepam has a mean oral bioavailability [ F ] of 76%, which is why the maximum plasma levels [Cmax] tend to change with an interaction. The terminal half-life [ t12 ] is rather long at 36 hours and constant plasma levels [ Css ] are only reached after more than 144 hours. The protein binding [ Pb ] is 97% strong and the volume of distribution [ Vd ] is very large at 83 liters. Since the substance has a low hepatic extraction rate of 0.03, displacement from protein binding [Pb] in the context of an interaction can lead to increased exposure. The metabolism takes place via CYP2B6, CYP2C19 and CYP3A4, among others.
|Serotonergic Effects a||2||++||Ø|
Recommendation: As a precautionary measure, symptoms of serotonergic overstimulation should be taken into account, especially after increasing the dose and at doses in the upper therapeutic range.
Rating: Tramadol modulates the serotonergic system to a moderate extent. The risk of a serotonergic syndrome can be classified as low with this medication if the dosage is in the usual range. According to our knowledge, diazepam does not increase serotonergic activity.
|Kiesel & Durán b||2||+||+|
Recommendation: As a precaution, attention should be paid to anticholinergic symptoms, especially after increasing the dose and at doses in the upper therapeutic range.
Rating: Tramadol and diazepam only have a mild effect on the anticholinergic system. The risk of anticholinergic syndrome with this medication is rather low if the dosage is in the usual range.
QT time prolongation
Tramadol can potentially increase QT time, but we do not know about torsades de pointes arrhythmias. We do not know of any QT-prolonging potential for diazepam.
General adverse effects
|Side effects||∑ frequency||tra||dia|
Seizure: diazepam, tramadol
Rebound effect: diazepam
Addiction: diazepam, tramadol
Respiratory depression: diazepam, tramadol
Hypersensitivity reaction: tramadol
Based on your answers and scientific information, we assess the individual risk of undesirable side effects. These recommendations are intended to advise professionals and are not a substitute for consultation with a doctor. In the restricted test version (alpha), the risk of all substances has not yet been conclusively assessed.
Abstract: The effects of steady state dosing with omeprazole and cimetidine on plasma diazepam levels have been studied in 12 healthy males. Single doses of diazepam (0.1 mg.kg-1 i.v.) were administered after one week of treatment with omeprazole 20 mg once daily, cimetidine 400 mg b.d. or placebo, and the treatment was continued for a further 5 days. Blood was collected for 120 h after the dose of diazepam for the measurement of diazepam and its major metabolite desmethyl diazepam. The mean clearance of diazepam was decreased by 27% and 38% and its half-life was increased by 36% and 39% after omeprazole and cimetidine, respectively. Neither drug had any apparent effect on the volume of distribution of diazepam. Desmethyldiazepam appeared more slowly after both omeprazole and cimetidine. It is concluded that the decrease in diazepam clearance was associated with inhibition of hepatic metabolism both by omeprazole and cimetidine. However, since diazepam has a wide therapeutic range, it is unlikely that concomitant treatment with therapeutically recommended doses of either omeprazole or cimetidine will result in a clinically significant interaction with diazepam.
Abstract: Healthy volunteers received single doses of three benzodiazepines (diazepam, 10 mg i.v.; alprazolam, 1.0 mg orally; lorazepam, 2 mg i.v.) on two occasions in random sequence. One trial was a control; for the other, subjects ingested propoxyphene, 65 mg every 6 h, for the duration of the benzodiazepine study. The kinetics of each benzodiazepine were determined from multiple plasma concentrations measured following each dose. For diazepam, propoxyphene produced a small and statistically insignificant prolongation of elimination half-life (43 vs 38 h) and reduction of total clearance (0.41 vs 0.47 ml min-1 kg-1). Propoxyphene significantly prolonged alprazolam half-life (18 vs 12 h, P less than 0.005) and reduced total clearance (0.8 vs 1.3 ml min-1 kg-1, P less than 0.005). Propoxyphene had no apparent influence on lorazepam half-life (13.4 vs 13.5 h) or clearance (1.5 vs 1.4 ml min-1 kg-1). Thus propoxyphene significantly impairs the clearance of alprazolam, biotransformed mainly by the oxidative reaction of aliphatic hydroxylation. Propoxyphene has far less effect on the oxidation of diazepam by N-demethylation, and has no apparent influence on lorazepam conjugation.
Abstract: 1 The absorption of single doses of diazepam in six adult epileptic subjects following intravenous, oral and rectal administration were studied in order to evaluate the usefulness of the latter in emergency situations in the adult. 2 Diazepam tablets (Valium, Roche) and rectal solution (Valium solution for intravenous administration) produced similar peak serum concentrations after delays of 15-90 min. 3 Two suppository formulations showed statistically significant differences in absorption characteristics. 4 Serum diazepam levels above 400 ng ml-1 (suggested to be necessary for a satisfactory anticonvulsant effect) were reached in only a few subjects after rectal doses of 10-20 mg of solution, and then usually after a delay of over 2 h.
Abstract: The effects of pretreatment with a seven day course of ciprofloxacin on pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of an intravenous (5 mg) dose of diazepam were investigated in a group of 12 healthy volunteers in a double-blind placebo-controlled crossover study. Ciprofloxacin pretreatment significantly reduced diazepam CL (without ciprofloxacin: 19.5 ml.h-1 kg-1; with ciprofloxacin: 12.3 ml.h-1 kg-1). Diazepam t1/2 was also prolonged (without ciprofloxacin: 36.7 h; with ciprofloxacin: 71.1 h), but volume of distribution was unaltered (without ciprofloxacin: 1.1 l.kg-1; with ciprofloxacin: 1.1 l.kg-1). However, no significant changes were detected in psychometric tests of digit symbol substitution, tapping rate and short memory, as well as levels of concentration, vigilance and tension measured by visual analogue scales.
Abstract: 1. We have examined the metabolism of diazepam by ten human cytochrome P450 forms (CYP1A2, 2A6, 2B6, 2C8, 2C9, 2C19, 2D6, 2E1, 3A4 and 3A5) expressed in HepG2 cells using a recombinant vaccinia virus system. 2. Among the P450 forms tested, diazepam was significantly demethylated by CYP2B6, 2C9, 2C19, 3A4 and 3A5, with 2C19 exhibiting the highest rate at concentrations < 0.1 mM, and hydroxylated only by the latter three enzymes, with 3A5 being the most active. The N-demethylation activity of diazepam by 2C19 at a concentration of 20 microM was six times of that by 3A4. However, that by 2C9 was detected at only a trace level. 3. CYP2C19, 3A4 and 3A5 of the ten human P450s catalysed the 3-hydroxylation of nordiazepam, and 2B6, the 2C subfamily and the 3A subfamily catalysed the N-demethylation of temazepam. CYP3A4 exhibited the highest activity of nordiazepam 3-hydroxylation and temazepam N-demethylation. 4. Diazepam N-demethylation by human liver microsomes correlated with diazepam 3-hydroxylation, but not S-mephenytoin 4'-hydroxylation. 5. Our results suggest that in the human liver, the metabolism of diazepam to nordiazepam is mediated by CYP3A4, which has been reported as the most abundant P450 form in human liver as well as 2C19, which has been reported as a polymorphic enzyme.
Abstract: (+/-)-Tramadol is a synthetic 4-phenyl-piperidine analogue of codeine. It is a central analgesic with a low affinity for opioid receptors. Its selectivity for mu receptors has recently been demonstrated, and the M1 metabolite of tramadol, produced by liver O-demethylation, shows a higher affinity for opioid receptors than the parent drug. The rate of production of this M1 derivative (O-demethyl tramadol), is influenced by a polymorphic isoenzyme of the debrisoquine-type, cytochrome P450 2D6 (CYP2D6). Nevertheless, this affinity for mu receptors of the CNS remains low, being 6000 times lower than that of morphine. Moreover, and in contrast to other opioids, the analgesic action of tramadol is only partially inhibited by the opioid antagonist naloxone, which suggests the existence of another mechanism of action. This was demonstrated by the discovery of a monoaminergic activity that inhibits noradrenaline (norepinephrine) and serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine; 5-HT) reuptake, making a significant contribution to the analgesic action by blocking nociceptive impulses at the spinal level. (+/-)-Tramadol is a racemic mixture of 2 enantiomers, each one displaying differing affinities for various receptors. (+/-)-Tramadol is a selective agonist of mu receptors and preferentially inhibits serotonin reuptake, whereas (-)-tramadol mainly inhibits noradrenaline reuptake. The action of these 2 enantiomers is both complementary and synergistic and results in the analgesic effect of (+/-)-tramadol. After oral administration, tramadol demonstrates 68% bioavailability, with peak serum concentrations reached within 2 hours. The elimination kinetics can be described as 2-compartmental, with a half-life of 5.1 hours for tramadol and 9 hours for the M1 derivative after a single oral dose of 100mg. This explains the approximately 2-fold accumulation of the parent drug and its M1 derivative that is observed during multiple dose treatment with tramadol. The recommended daily dose of tramadol is between 50 and 100mg every 4 to 6 hours, with a maximum dose of 400 mg/day; the duration of the analgesic effect after a single oral dose of tramadol 100mg is about 6 hours. Adverse effects, and nausea in particular, are dose-dependent and therefore considerably more likely to appear if the loading dose is high. The reduction of this dose during the first days of treatment is an important factor in improving tolerability. Other adverse effects are generally similar to those of opioids, although they are usually less severe, and can include respiratory depression, dysphoria and constipation. Tramadol can be administered concomitantly with other analgesics, particularly those with peripheral action, while drugs that depress CNS function may enhance the sedative effect of tramadol. Tramadol should not be administered to patients receiving monoamine oxidase inhibitors, and administration with tricyclic antidepressant drugs should also be avoided. Tramadol has pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic properties that are highly unlikely to lead to dependence. This was confirmed by various controlled studies and postmarketing surveillance studies, which reported an extremely small number of patients developing tolerance or instances of tramadol abuse. Tramadol is a central acting analgesic which has been shown to be effective and well tolerated, and likely to be of value for treating several pain conditions (step II of the World Health Organization ladder) where treatment with strong opioids is not required.
Abstract: No Abstract available
Abstract: (R,S)-Oxazepam is a 1,4-benzodiazepine anxiolytic drug that is metabolized primarily by hepatic glucuronidation. In previous studies, S-oxazepam (but not R-oxazepam) was shown to be polymorphically glucuronidated in humans. The aim of the present study was to identify UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) isoforms mediating R- and S-oxazepam glucuronidation in human liver, with the long term objective of elucidating the molecular genetic basis for this drug metabolism polymorphism. All available recombinant UGT isoforms were screened for R- and S-oxazepam glucuronidation activities. Enzyme kinetic parameters were then determined in representative human liver microsomes (HLMs) and in UGTs that showed significant activity. Of 12 different UGTs evaluated, only UGT2B15 showed significant S-oxazepam glucuronidation. Furthermore, the apparent K(m) for UGT2B15 (29-35 microM) was similar to values determined for HLMs (43-60 microM). In contrast, R-oxazepam was glucuronidated by UGT1A9 and UGT2B7. Although apparent K(m) values for HLMs (256-303 microM) were most similar to UGT2B7 (333 microM) rather than UGT1A9 (12 microM), intrinsic clearance values for UGT1A9 were 10 times higher than for UGT2B7. A common genetic variation results in aspartate (UGT2B15*1) or tyrosine (UGT2B15*2) at position 85 of the UGT2B15 protein. Microsomes from human embryonic kidney (HEK)-293 cells overexpressing UGT2B15*1 showed 5 times higher S-oxazepam glucuronidation activity than did UGT2B15*2 microsomes. Similar results were obtained for other substrates, including eugenol, naringenin, 4-methylumbelliferone, and androstane-3alpha-diol. In conclusion, S-oxazepam is stereoselectively glucuronidated by UGT2B15, whereas R-oxazepam is glucuronidated by multiple UGT isoforms. Allelic variation associated with the UGT2B15 gene may explain polymorphic S-oxazepam glucuronidation in humans.
Abstract: The binding of drugs to plasma proteins is important to consider when concentrations in whole blood (eg, in forensic toxicology) are compared with therapeutic and toxic concentrations based on the analysis of plasma or serum. The plasma to whole blood distribution of diazepam (D) and its major metabolite nordiazepam (ND) was investigated under in vitro and ex vivo conditions. Studies in vitro were done by spiking whole blood with D and ND to give concentrations ranging from 0.1 to 1.0 microg/g. Venous blood was also obtained from hospital blood donors (n = 66) after informed consent. The hematocrit, hemoglobin, and water content of blood specimens were determined by routine procedures before D and ND were added to produce target concentrations of approximately 0.5 microg/g for each substance. The ex vivo work was done with blood specimens from hospital outpatients who were being medicated with D. Concentrations of D and ND were determined in body fluids by capillary column gas chromatography after adding prazepam as internal standard and solvent extraction with butyl acetate. The method limit of quantitation was 0.03 microg/g for both D and ND. The concentrations of D and ND were highest in plasma and lowest in erythrocytes. The plasma/blood (P/B) distribution ratios did not depend on drug concentration between 0.1 and 1.0 microg/g. The mean P/B ratios were 1.79:1 for D and 1.69:1 for ND when hematocrit was 45%. Furthermore, the P/B ratio for D (y) was positively correlated with blood hematocrit (x) and the regression equation was y = 0.636 + 0.025x (r = 0.86, P < 0.001). A similar strong association was found between the P/B ratio and hematocrit for ND (r = 0.79). P/B ratios of D and ND, blood hematocrit, hemoglobin, and the water content differed between sexes (P < 0.001). The overall mean P/B ratios for D and ND were 1.69 +/- 0.097 (+/- SD) and 1.62 +/- 0.08 (P < 0.001, n = 66) respectively when the mean hematocrit was 42.9 +/- 3.4 (+/- SD). For forensic purposes, it would be better to forgo making any conversion of a drug concentration measured in whole blood to that expected in plasma or serum; instead, therapeutic and toxic concentrations should be established for the actual specimens received.
Abstract: Tramadol, a centrally acting analgesic structurally related to codeine and morphine, consists of two enantiomers, both of which contribute to analgesic activity via different mechanisms. (+)-Tramadol and the metabolite (+)-O-desmethyl-tramadol (M1) are agonists of the mu opioid receptor. (+)-Tramadol inhibits serotonin reuptake and (-)-tramadol inhibits norepinephrine reuptake, enhancing inhibitory effects on pain transmission in the spinal cord. The complementary and synergistic actions of the two enantiomers improve the analgesic efficacy and tolerability profile of the racemate. Tramadol is available as drops, capsules and sustained-release formulations for oral use, suppositories for rectal use and solution for intramuscular, intravenous and subcutaneous injection. After oral administration, tramadol is rapidly and almost completely absorbed. Sustained-release tablets release the active ingredient over a period of 12 hours, reach peak concentrations after 4.9 hours and have a bioavailability of 87-95% compared with capsules. Tramadol is rapidly distributed in the body; plasma protein binding is about 20%. Tramadol is mainly metabolised by O- and N-demethylation and by conjugation reactions forming glucuronides and sulfates. Tramadol and its metabolites are mainly excreted via the kidneys. The mean elimination half-life is about 6 hours. The O-demethylation of tramadol to M1, the main analgesic effective metabolite, is catalysed by cytochrome P450 (CYP) 2D6, whereas N-demethylation to M2 is catalysed by CYP2B6 and CYP3A4. The wide variability in the pharmacokinetic properties of tramadol can partly be ascribed to CYP polymorphism. O- and N-demethylation of tramadol as well as renal elimination are stereoselective. Pharmacokinetic-pharmacodynamic characterisation of tramadol is difficult because of differences between tramadol concentrations in plasma and at the site of action, and because of pharmacodynamic interactions between the two enantiomers of tramadol and its active metabolites. The analgesic potency of tramadol is about 10% of that of morphine following parenteral administration. Tramadol provides postoperative pain relief comparable with that of pethidine, and the analgesic efficacy of tramadol can further be improved by combination with a non-opioid analgesic. Tramadol may prove particularly useful in patients with a risk of poor cardiopulmonary function, after surgery of the thorax or upper abdomen and when non-opioid analgesics are contraindicated. Tramadol is an effective and well tolerated agent to reduce pain resulting from trauma, renal or biliary colic and labour, and also for the management of chronic pain of malignant or nonmalignant origin, particularly neuropathic pain. Tramadol appears to produce less constipation and dependence than equianalgesic doses of strong opioids.
Abstract: No Abstract available
Abstract: The metabolic activities of six psychotropic drugs, diazepam, clotiazepam, tofisopam, etizolam, tandospirone, and imipramine, were determined for 14 isoforms of recombinant human hepatic cytochrome P450s (CYPs) and human liver microsomes by measuring the disappearance rate of parent compounds. In vitro kinetic studies revealed that Vmax/Km values in human liver microsomes were the highest for tofisopam, followed by tandospirone>clotiazepam>imipramine, diazepam, and etizolam. Among the recombinant CYPs, CYP3A4 exhibited the highest metabolic activities of all compounds except for clotiazepam and imipramine. The metabolism of clotiazepam was catalyzed by CYP2B6, CYP3A4, CYP2C18, and CYP2C19, and imipramine was metabolized by CYP2D6 most efficiently. In addition, the metabolic activities of diazepam, clotiazepam, and etizolam in human liver microsomes were inhibited by 2.5 microM ketoconazole, a CYP3A4 inhibitor, by 97.5%, 65.1%, and 83.5%, respectively, and the imipramine metabolism was not detected after the addition of 1 or 10 microM quinidine, a CYP2D6 inhibitor. These results suggest that the psychotropic drugs investigated are metabolized predominantly by CYP3A4, except that CYP2D6 catalyzes the metabolism of imipramine. In addition, this approach based on the disappearance rate appears to be useful for the identification of the responsible CYP isoform(s) of older drugs, for which metabolic profiles have not been reported.
Abstract: Anticholinergic Drug Scale (ADS) scores were previously associated with serum anticholinergic activity (SAA) in a pilot study. To replicate these results, the association between ADS scores and SAA was determined using simple linear regression in subjects from a study of delirium in 201 long-term care facility residents who were not included in the pilot study. Simple and multiple linear regression models were then used to determine whether the ADS could be modified to more effectively predict SAA in all 297 subjects. In the replication analysis, ADS scores were significantly associated with SAA (R2 = .0947, P < .0001). In the modification analysis, each model significantly predicted SAA, including ADS scores (R2 = .0741, P < .0001). The modifications examined did not appear useful in optimizing the ADS. This study replicated findings on the association of the ADS with SAA. Future work will determine whether the ADS is clinically useful for preventing anticholinergic adverse effects.
Abstract: The objective of this study was to measure the anticholinergic activity (AA) of medications commonly used by older adults. A radioreceptor assay was used to investigate the AA of 107 medications. Six clinically relevant concentrations were assessed for each medication. Rodent forebrain and striatum homogenate was used with tritiated quinuclidinyl benzilate. Drug-free serum was added to medication and atropine standard-curve samples. For medications that showed detectable AA, average steady-state peak plasma and serum concentrations (C(max)) in older adults were used to estimate relationships between in vitro dose and AA. All results are reported in pmol/mL of atropine equivalents. At typical doses administered to older adults, amitriptyline, atropine, clozapine, dicyclomine, doxepin, L-hyoscyamine, thioridazine, and tolterodine demonstrated AA exceeding 15 pmol/mL. Chlorpromazine, diphenhydramine, nortriptyline, olanzapine, oxybutynin, and paroxetine had AA values of 5 to 15 pmol/mL. Citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine, lithium, mirtazapine, quetiapine, ranitidine, and temazepam had values less than 5 pmol/mL. Amoxicillin, celecoxib, cephalexin, diazepam, digoxin, diphenoxylate, donepezil, duloxetine, fentanyl, furosemide, hydrocodone, lansoprazole, levofloxacin, metformin, phenytoin, propoxyphene, and topiramate demonstrated AA only at the highest concentrations tested (patients with above-average C(max) values, who receive higher doses, or are frail may show AA). The remainder of the medications investigated did not demonstrate any AA at the concentrations examined. Psychotropic medications were particularly likely to demonstrate AA. Each of the drug classifications investigated (e.g., antipsychotic, cardiovascular) had at least one medication that demonstrated AA at therapeutic doses. Clinicians can use this information when choosing between equally efficacious medications, as well as in assessing overall anticholinergic burden.
Abstract: OBJECTIVES: To examine the longitudinal relationship between cumulative exposure to anticholinergic medications and memory and executive function in older men. DESIGN: Prospective cohort study. SETTING: A Department of Veterans Affairs primary care clinic. PARTICIPANTS: Five hundred forty-four community-dwelling men aged 65 and older with diagnosed hypertension. MEASUREMENTS: The outcomes were measured using the Hopkins Verbal Recall Test (HVRT) for short-term memory and the instrumental activity of daily living (IADL) scale for executive function at baseline and during follow-up. Anticholinergic medication use was ascertained using participants' primary care visit records and quantified as total anticholinergic burden using a clinician-rated anticholinergic score. RESULTS: Cumulative exposure to anticholinergic medications over the preceding 12 months was associated with poorer performance on the HVRT and IADLs. On average, a 1-unit increase in the total anticholinergic burden per 3 months was associated with a 0.32-point (95% confidence interval (CI)= 0.05-0.58) and 0.10-point (95% CI=0.04-0.17) decrease in the HVRT and IADLs, respectively, independent of other potential risk factors for cognitive impairment, including age, education, cognitive and physical function, comorbidities, and severity of hypertension. The association was attenuated but remained statistically significant with memory (0.29, 95% CI=0.01-0.56) and executive function (0.08, 95% CI=0.02-0.15) after further adjustment for concomitant non-anticholinergic medications. CONCLUSION: Cumulative anticholinergic exposure across multiple medications over 1 year may negatively affect verbal memory and executive function in older men. Prescription of drugs with anticholinergic effects in older persons deserves continued attention to avoid deleterious adverse effects.
Abstract: WHAT IS ALREADY KNOWN: During recent years some opioids have been associated with prolonged QT and torsade de pointes (TdP). In vitro testing has shown that most opioids can block the cardiac potassium channels. This indicates that QT prolongation and TdP could be a more general problem associated with the use of these drugs. WHAT THIS PAPER ADDS: This study is the first to show that oxycodone dose is associated with QT prolongation and in vitro blockade of hERG channels expressed in HEK293. Neither morphine nor tramadol doses are associated with the QT interval length. AIMS: During recent years some opioids have been associated with prolonged QT interval and torsade de pointes (TdP). In vitro patch clamp testing has shown that most opioids can block human ether-a-go-go related gene (hERG) channels that are known to underlie cardiac repolarizing I(Kr) current. This indicates that QT prolongation and TdP could be a more general problem associated with the use of these drugs. The aims of this study were to evaluate the association between different opioids and the QTc among patients and measure hERG activity under influence by opioids in vitro. METHODS: One hundred chronic nonmalignant pain patients treated with methadone, oxycodone, morphine or tramadol were recruited in a cross-sectional study. The QTc was estimated from a 12-lead ECG. To examine hERG activity in the presence of oxycodone, electrophysiological testing was conducted using Xenopus laevis oocytes and HEK293 cells expressing hERG channels. RESULTS: There were no differences in gender distribution or age between the treatment groups. The known association between methadone dose and QTc was confirmed (R(2) = 0.09; P = 0.02). Higher oxycodone dose was also associated with longer QTc (R(2) = 0.21; P = 0.02). A 100 mg higher oxycodone dose was associated with a 10 ms(1/2) (95% CI 2-19) longer QTc. Neither morphine nor tramadol dose was associated with the QTc. Electrophysiological testing revealed low-affinity inhibition of the potassium current through hERG channels expressed in HEK293 cells (IC(50) = 171 microM oxycodone). CONCLUSIONS: Among patients treated with methadone or oxycodone, higher doses were associated with longer QTc. Oxycodone is capable of inhibiting hERG channels in vitro.
Abstract: BACKGROUND: Cognitive decline is common in Parkinson's disease (PD). Although some of the aetiological factors are known, it is not yet known whether drugs with anticholinergic activity (AA) contribute to this cognitive decline. Such knowledge would provide opportunities to prevent acceleration of cognitive decline in PD. OBJECTIVE: To study whether the use of agents with anticholinergic properties is an independent risk factor for cognitive decline in patients with PD. METHODS: A community-based cohort of patients with PD (n=235) were included and assessed at baseline. They were reassessed 4 and 8 years later. Cognition was assessed using the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE). A detailed assessment of the AA of all drugs prescribed was made, and AA was classified according to a standardised scale. Relationships between cognitive decline and AA load and duration of treatment were assessed using bivariate and multivariate statistical analyses. RESULTS: More than 40% used drugs with AA at baseline. During the 8-year follow-up, the cognitive decline was higher in those who had been taking AA drugs (median decline on MMSE 6.5 points) compared with those who had not taken such drugs (median decline 1 point; p=0.025). In linear regression analyses adjusting for age, baseline cognition and depression, significant associations with decline on MMSE were found for total AA load (standardised beta=0.229, p=0.04) as well as the duration of using AA drugs (standardised beta 0.231, p=0.032). CONCLUSION: Our findings suggest that there is an association between anticholinergic drug use and cognitive decline in PD. This may provide an important opportunity for clinicians to avoid increasing progression of cognitive decline by avoiding drugs with AA. Increased awareness by clinicians is required about the classes of drugs that have anticholinergic properties.
Abstract: No Abstract available
Abstract: The three hydroxybenzodiazepines oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam used for their anxiolytic, sedative, and anticonvulsant properties are metabolized by glucuronidation, which is the predominant pathway in the clearance mechanism of exogenous and endogenous substances during phase II metabolism. The aim of this study was the synthesis of benzodiazepine-O-glucuronides as analytical reference substances. All benzodiazepines are prescribed clinically as racemic formulations. The resulting conjugates from the coupling reactions with glucuronic acid are epimeric pairs of glucuronides. Due to the importance of stereochemical factors in drug disposition it is necessary to separate the diastereomeric forms after synthesis. An enzyme-assisted synthesis was developed and optimized by using microsomal UGT from fresh swine liver to receive multimilligram amounts of the benzodiazepine glucuronides, which were not accessible by standard synthetic procedures, like the Koenigs-Knorr- and Williamson-ether-synthesis. Swine liver microsomes were prepared by homogenization and differential centrifugation of liver tissue. In the presence of liver microsomes the benzodiazepines and cofactor UDPGA were incubated for 24h. After incubation the microsomes were removed by protein precipitation and the residual benzodiazepines by liquid-liquid extraction (dichloromethane). The epimeric pairs of benzodiazepine glucuronides were separated by preparative high performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) followed by solid phase extraction (SPE) to obtain the pure benzodiazepine glucuronide epimers. The synthesis products were characterized by mass spectroscopy and nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy.
Abstract: BACKGROUND/AIMS: The nature and extent of adverse cognitive effects due to the prescription of anticholinergic drugs in older people with and without dementia is unclear. METHODS: We calculated the anticholinergic load (ACL) of medications taken by participants of the Australian Imaging, Biomarkers and Lifestyle (AIBL) study of ageing, a cohort of 211 Alzheimer's disease (AD) patients, 133 mild cognitive impairment (MCI) patients and 768 healthy controls (HC) all aged over 60 years. The association between ACL and cognitive function was examined for each diagnostic group (HC, MCI, AD). RESULTS: A high ACL within the HC group was associated with significantly slower response speeds for the Stroop color and incongruent trials. No other significant relationships between ACL and cognition were noted. CONCLUSION: In this large cohort, prescribed anticholinergic drugs appeared to have modest effects upon psychomotor speed and executive function, but not on other areas of cognition in healthy older adults.
Abstract: PURPOSE: We assessed possible drug interactions of tramadol given concomitantly with the potent CYP2B6 inhibitor ticlopidine, alone or together with the potent CYP3A4 and P-glycoprotein inhibitor itraconazole. METHODS: In a randomized, placebo-controlled cross-over study, 12 healthy subjects ingested 50 mg of tramadol after 4 days of pretreatment with either placebo, ticlopidine (250 mg twice daily) or ticlopidine plus itraconazole (200 mg once daily). Plasma and urine concentrations of tramadol and its active metabolite O-desmethyltramadol (M1) were monitored over 48 h and 24 h, respectively. RESULTS: Ticlopidine increased the mean area under the plasma concentration-time curve (AUC0-∞) of tramadol by 2.0-fold (90 % confidence interval (CI) 1.6-2.4; p < 0.001) and Cmax by 1.4-fold (p < 0.001), and reduced its oral and renal clearance (p < 0.01). Ticlopidine reduced the AUC0-3 of M1 (p < 0.001) and the ratio of the AUC0-∞ of M1 to that of tramadol, but did not influence the AUC0-∞ of M1. Tramadol or M1 pharmacokinetics did not differ between the ticlopidine alone and ticlopidine plus itraconazole phases. CONCLUSIONS: Ticlopidine increased exposure to tramadol, reduced its renal clearance and inhibited the formation of M1, most likely via inhibition of CYP2B6 and/or CYP2D6. The addition of itraconazole to ticlopidine did not modify the outcome of the drug interaction. Concomitant clinical use of ticlopidine and tramadol may enhance the risk of serotonergic effects, especially when higher doses of tramadol are used.
Abstract: Organic anion transporting polypeptide (OATP) family transporters accept a number of drugs and are increasingly being recognized as important factors in governing drug and metabolite pharmacokinetics. OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 play an important role in hepatic drug uptake while OATP2B1 and OATP1A2 might be key players in intestinal absorption and transport across blood-brain barrier of drugs, respectively. To understand the importance of OATPs in the hepatic clearance of drugs, the rate-determining process for elimination should be considered; for some drugs, hepatic uptake clearance rather than metabolic intrinsic clearance is the more important determinant of hepatic clearances. The importance of the unbound concentration ratio (liver/blood), K(p,uu) , of drugs, which is partly governed by OATPs, is exemplified in interpreting the difference in the IC(50) of statins between the hepatocyte and microsome systems for the inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase activity. The intrinsic activity and/or expression level of OATPs are affected by genetic polymorphisms and drug-drug interactions. Their effects on the elimination rate or intestinal absorption rate of drugs may sometimes depend on the substrate drug. This is partly because of the different contribution of OATP isoforms to clearance or intestinal absorption. When the contribution of the OATP-mediated pathway is substantial, the pharmacokinetics of substrate drugs should be greatly affected. This review describes the estimation of the contribution of OATP1B1 to the total hepatic uptake of drugs from the data of fold-increases in the plasma concentration of substrate drugs by the genetic polymorphism of this transporter. To understand the importance of the OATP family transporters, modeling and simulation with a physiologically based pharmacokinetic model are helpful.
Abstract: PURPOSE: Tramadol is mainly metabolized by the cytochrome P450 (CYP) 2D6, CYP2B6 and CYP3A4 enzymes. The aim of this study was to evaluate the effect of enzyme induction with rifampicin on the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of oral and intravenous tramadol. METHODS: This was a randomized placebo-controlled crossover study design with 12 healthy subjects. After pretreatment for 5 days with rifampicin (600 mg once daily) or placebo, subjects were given tramadol either 50 mg intravenously or 100 mg orally. Plasma concentrations of tramadol and its active main metabolite O-desmethyltramadol (M1) were determined over 48 h. Analgesic and behavioral effects and whole blood 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT) and 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) concentrations were measured. RESULTS: Rifampicin reduced the mean area under the time-concentration curve (AUC0-∞) of intravenously administered tramadol by 43 % and that of M1 by 58 % (P < 0.001); it reduced the AUC0-∞ of oral tramadol by 59 % and that of M1 by 54 % (P < 0.001). Rifampicin increased the clearance of intravenous tramadol by 67 % (P < 0.001). Bioavailability of oral tramadol was reduced by rifampicin from 66 to 49 % (P = 0.002). The pharmacological effects of tramadol or whole blood serotonin concentrations were not influenced by pretreatment with rifampicin. CONCLUSIONS: Rifampicin markedly decreased the exposure to tramadol and M1 after both oral and intravenous administration. Therefore, rifampicin and other potent enzyme inducers may have a clinically important interaction with tramadol regardless of the route of its administration.
Abstract: BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVE: Tramadol hydrochloride is used worldwide as an analgesic drug with a unique dual function. The metabolic enzymes cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A4, CYP2B6, and CYP2D6 and the various transporters [adenosine triphosphate-binding cassette B1/multidrug resistance 1/P-glycoprotein, organic cation transporter 1, serotonin transporter (SERT), norepinephrine transporter (NET)] and receptor genes (opioid receptor μ 1 gene) give possible genetic differences that might affect the pharmacokinetics and/or pharmacodynamics of tramadol. Therefore, the aim of this review is to present a systematic walkthrough of all possible genetic factors involved in the pharmacology of tramadol. METHOD: A systematic literature search was conducted in PubMed and EMBASE involving all metabolic enzymes, drug transporters and receptors, as well as SERT and NET that are involved in the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of tramadol. An additional search on population pharmacokinetics with genetic factors as covariates was performed separately. RESULTS: A total of 56 studies (45 cohort and case-control studies, three case reports, six in vitro studies, and two animal studies) were included. CONCLUSION: In this systematic review, the current knowledge on all possible genetic factors that might influence the metabolism or clinical efficacy of tramadol has been collected and summarized. Only the effect of CYP2D6 polymorphisms on the metabolism of tramadol and the consequent effect on pain relief has been thoroughly studied and sufficiently established as clinically relevant.
Abstract: UNLABELLED: In recent years, several cases of torsade de pointes have been associated with many opioids. However, to present no cases have been reported with tramadol. OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the effect of tramadol on QT-interval in the clinical setting. RESEARCH DESIGN AND METHODS: Medical history and comorbidities predisposing to QT interval prolongation were registered for patients requiring medical assistance that involved tramadol administration. Ionograms and ECGs were performed at baseline and intratreatment; QT interval was analyzed after correction with Bazzet, Fridericia, Framinghan and Hogdes formula. RESULTS: 115 patients were studied (50.4% males) All patients had received tramadol 150-400 mg/day during 3.0-5.0 days at the moment of intratreatment control. Plasma concentrations of tramadol were 201-1613 ng/mL. Intratreatment electrocardiographic control, as mean ± SD (range), showed QTcB 372±32 (305 to 433), QTcFri 356±37 (281 to 429), QTcFra 363±33 (299 to 429), QTcH 362±30 (304 to 427), ΔQTcB 26±40 (-73 to 110), ΔQTcFri 24±48 (-97 to 121), ΔQTcFra 22±42 (-81 to 109) and .QTcH 22±38 (-68 to 110) ms. QTc interval presents high correlation with plasma tramadol concentrations (for .QTc, R>0.77). Renal failure was associated with a relative risk for ΔQTc > 30 ms of 1.90 (IC95% 1.31-2.74) and for ΔQTc > 60 ms of 4.74 (IC95% 2.57-8.74). No patient had evidence of arrhythmia during the present study. CONCLUSION: Tramadol produces QTc interval prolongation in good correlation with plasma drug concentrations; renal failure is a risk factor for higher concentration and QT prolongation by tramadol.
Abstract: We evaluated the effects of therapeutic and supratherapeutic doses of tramadol hydrochloride on the corrected QT (QTc) interval in healthy adults (aged 18-55 years) in a randomized, phase I, double-blind, placebo- and positive-controlled, multiple-dose, 4-way crossover study. Participants were randomized to receive 1 of 4 treatments (A-D), 1 each in 4 treatment periods (1-4), separated by a washout period (7-15 days). Treatment A comprised tramadol 400 mg (therapeutic dose) on days 1 through 3, tramadol 100 mg and moxifloxacin-matched placebo on day 4, and placebo on all 4 days. Treatment B comprised tramadol 600 mg (supratherapeutic dose) on days 1 through 3, and tramadol 150 mg and moxifloxacin-matched placebo on day 4. Treatment C comprised placebo on days 1 through 4 and moxifloxacin-matched placebo on day 4. Treatment D comprised placebo on days 1 through 4 and moxifloxacin 400 mg on day 4. Of 68 participants enrolled, 57 (83.8%) completed the study. Both therapeutic and supratherapeutic doses of tramadol were shown to be noninferior to placebo regarding their effect on QTc prolongation. Sixty-one of 68 (89.7%) participants reported at least 1 treatment-emergent adverse event (mild); nausea was the most frequently reported treatment-emergent adverse event. Summarizing, tramadol at doses up to 600 mg/day did not cause clinically relevant QTc interval prolongation in healthy adults.
Abstract: BACKGROUND: Anticholinergic drugs put elderly patients at a higher risk for falls, cognitive decline, and delirium as well as peripheral adverse reactions like dry mouth or constipation. Prescribers are often unaware of the drug-based anticholinergic burden (ACB) of their patients. This study aimed to develop an anticholinergic burden score for drugs licensed in Germany to be used by clinicians at prescribing level. METHODS: A systematic literature search in pubmed assessed previously published ACB tools. Quantitative grading scores were extracted, reduced to drugs available in Germany, and reevaluated by expert discussion. Drugs were scored as having no, weak, moderate, or strong anticholinergic effects. Further drugs were identified in clinical routine and included as well. RESULTS: The literature search identified 692 different drugs, with 548 drugs available in Germany. After exclusion of drugs due to no systemic effect or scoring of drug combinations (n = 67) and evaluation of 26 additional identified drugs in clinical routine, 504 drugs were scored. Of those, 356 drugs were categorised as having no, 104 drugs were scored as weak, 18 as moderate and 29 as having strong anticholinergic effects. CONCLUSIONS: The newly created ACB score for drugs authorized in Germany can be used in daily clinical practice to reduce potentially inappropriate medications for elderly patients. Further clinical studies investigating its effect on reducing anticholinergic side effects are necessary for validation.
Abstract: In pediatric PBPK models, age-related changes in the body are known to occur. Given the sparsity of and the variability associated with relevant physiological parameters, different PBPK software providers may vary in their system's data. In this work, three commercially available PBPK software packages (PK-Sim®, Simcyp®, and Gastroplus®) were investigated regarding their differences in system-related information, possibly affecting clearance prediction. Three retrograde PBPK clearance models were set up to enable prediction of pediatric tramadol clearance. These models were qualified in terms of total, CYP2D6, and renal clearance in adults. Tramadol pediatric clearance predictions from PBPK were compared with a pooled popPK model covering clearance ranging from neonates to adults. Fold prediction errors were used to evaluate the results. Marked differences in liver clearance prediction between PBPK models were observed. In general, the prediction bias of total clearance was greatest at the youngest population and decreased with age. Regarding CYP2D6 and renal clearance, important differences exist between PBPK software tools. Interestingly, the PBPK model with the shortest CYP2D6 maturation half-life (PK-Sim) agreed best with the in vivo CYP2D6 maturation model. Marked differences in physiological data explain the observed differences in hepatic clearance prediction in early life between the various PBPK software providers tested. Consensus on the most suited pediatric data to use should harmonize and optimize pediatric clearance predictions. Moreover, the combination of bottom-up and top-down approaches, using a convenient probe substrate, has the potential to update system-related parameters in order to better represent pediatric physiology.
Abstract: OBJECTIVE: To determine the risk of prolonged opioid use in patients receiving tramadol compared with other short acting opioids. DESIGN: Observational study of administrative claims data. SETTING: United States commercial and Medicare Advantage insurance claims (OptumLabs Data Warehouse) January 1, 2009 through June 30, 2018. PARTICIPANTS: Opioid-naive patients undergoing elective surgery. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURE: Risk of persistent opioid use after discharge for patients treated with tramadol alone compared with other short acting opioids, using three commonly used definitions of prolonged opioid use from the literature: additional opioid use (defined as at least one opioid fill 90-180 days after surgery); persistent opioid use (any span of opioid use starting in the 180 days after surgery and lasting ≥90 days); and CONSORT definition (an opioid use episode starting in the 180 days after surgery that spans ≥90 days and includes either ≥10 opioid fills or ≥120 days' supply of opioids). RESULTS: Of 444 764 patients who met the inclusion criteria, 357 884 filled a discharge prescription for one or more opioids associated with one of 20 included operations. The most commonly prescribed post-surgery opioid was hydrocodone (53.0% of those filling a single opioid), followed by short acting oxycodone (37.5%) and tramadol (4.0%). The unadjusted risk of prolonged opioid use after surgery was 7.1% (n=31 431) with additional opioid use, 1.0% (n=4457) with persistent opioid use, and 0.5% (n=2027) meeting the CONSORT definition. Receipt of tramadol alone was associated with a 6% increase in the risk of additional opioid use relative to people receiving other short acting opioids (incidence rate ratio 95% confidence interval 1.00 to 1.13; risk difference 0.5 percentage points; P=0.049), 47% increase in the adjusted risk of persistent opioid use (1.25 to 1.69; 0.5 percentage points; P<0.001), and 41% increase in the adjusted risk of a CONSORT chronic opioid use episode (1.08 to 1.75; 0.2 percentage points; P=0.013). CONCLUSIONS: People receiving tramadol alone after surgery had similar to somewhat higher risks of prolonged opioid use compared with those receiving other short acting opioids. Federal governing bodies should consider reclassifying tramadol, and providers should use as much caution when prescribing tramadol in the setting of acute pain as for other short acting opioids.
Abstract: Genetic variants in the hepatic uptake transporter OCT1, observed in 9% of Europeans and white Americans, are known to affect pharmacokinetics and efficacy of tramadol, morphine, and codeine. Here, we report further opioids to be substrates and inhibitors of OCT1. Methylnaltrexone, hydromorphone, oxymorphone, and meptazinol were identified as OCT1 substrates. Methylnaltrexone is the strongest OCT1 substrate currently reported. It showed 86-fold higher accumulation in OCT1-overexpressing cells compared to control cells. We observed substantial differences in the inhibitory potency among structurally highly similar morphinan opioids (ICranged from 6.4 μM for dextrorphan to 2 mM for oxycodone). The ether linkage of C4-C5 in the morphinan ring leads to a strong reduction of inhibitory potency. In conclusion, although polyspecific, OCT1 possesses a strong selectivity for its ligands. In contrast to methylnaltrexone and hydromorphone, oxycodone and hydrocodone do not interact with OCT1 and may be safer for use in individuals with genetic OCT1 deficiency.