Prolongación del tiempo QT
Eventos adversos de medicamentos
|Dolor de cabeza|
Variantes ✨Para la evaluación computacionalmente intensiva de las variantes, elija la suscripción estándar paga.
Explicaciones de las sustancias para pacientes.
No existen advertencias adicionales para la combinación de claritromicina y clomipramina. Consulte también la información especializada pertinente.
Los cambios informados en la exposición corresponden a los cambios en la curva de concentración plasmática-tiempo [ AUC ]. No detectamos ningún cambio en la exposición a la claritromicina. Actualmente no podemos estimar la influencia de la clomipramina. No detectamos ningún cambio en la exposición a la clomipramina. Actualmente no podemos estimar la influencia de la claritromicina.
Los parámetros farmacocinéticos de la población media se utilizan como punto de partida para calcular los cambios individuales en la exposición debidos a las interacciones.
La claritromicina tiene una biodisponibilidad oral media [ F ] del 53%, por lo que los niveles plasmáticos máximos [Cmax] tienden a cambiar con una interacción. La vida media terminal [ t12 ] es relativamente corta a las 4.6 horas y los niveles plasmáticos constantes [ Css ] se alcanzan rápidamente. La unión a proteínas [ Pb ] es relativamente débil al 70% y el volumen de distribución [ Vd ] es muy grande a 176 litros. Dado que la sustancia tiene una tasa de extracción hepática baja de 0.13, el desplazamiento de la unión a proteínas [Pb] en el contexto de una interacción puede conducir a una mayor exposición. Aproximadamente el 27.5% de la dosis administrada se excreta inalterada a través de los riñones, y esta proporción rara vez se ve modificada por las interacciones. El metabolismo tiene lugar principalmente a través de CYP3A4 y el transporte activo tiene lugar especialmente a través de PGP.
La clomipramina tiene una biodisponibilidad oral media [ F ] del 50%, por lo que los niveles plasmáticos máximos [Cmax] tienden a cambiar con una interacción. La unión a proteínas [ Pb ] es 97% fuerte. El metabolismo tiene lugar a través de CYP1A2, CYP2C19, CYP2D6 y CYP3A4, entre otros.
|Efectos serotoninérgicos a||2||Ø||++|
Recomendación: Como medida de precaución, se deben tener en cuenta los síntomas de sobreestimulación serotoninérgica, especialmente después de aumentar la dosis y en dosis en el rango terapéutico superior.
Clasificación: La clomipramina modula el sistema serotoninérgico en un grado moderado. El riesgo de síndrome serotoninérgico se puede clasificar como bajo con este medicamento si la dosis se encuentra en el rango habitual. Según nuestro conocimiento, la claritromicina no aumenta la actividad serotoninérgica.
|Kiesel & Durán b||3||Ø||+++|
Recomendación: Como precaución, se debe prestar atención a los síntomas anticolinérgicos, especialmente después de aumentar la dosis y en dosis en el rango terapéutico superior.
Clasificación: La clomipramina aumenta en gran medida la actividad anticolinérgica. Según nuestro conocimiento, la claritromicina no aumenta la actividad anticolinérgica.
Prolongación del tiempo QT
Clasificación: En combinación, la claritromicina y la clomipramina pueden desencadenar potencialmente arritmias ventriculares del tipo torsades de pointes.
Efectos adversos generales
|Efectos secundarios||∑ frecuencia||cla||clo|
|Dolor de cabeza||45.4 %||9.0||40.0|
|Eyaculación anormal||24.0 %||n.a.||24.0|
|Disfunción eréctil||20.0 %||n.a.||20.0|
Diaforesis (19%): clomipramina
Síndrome de Stevens-Johnson: claritromicina
Necrolisis epidérmica toxica: claritromicina
Insomnio (18.8%): clomipramina, claritromicina
Mioclono (7.5%): clomipramina
Pérdida de apetito (17%): clomipramina
Diarrea (15%): clomipramina, claritromicina
Trastorno del gusto (13.5%): claritromicina
Vómitos (13%): claritromicina
Dolor abdominal (4.5%): claritromicina
Diarrea por clostridium difficile: claritromicina
Nasofaringitis (14%): clomipramina
Mialgia (13%): clomipramina
Visión borrosa (12.5%): clomipramina
Taquicardia (11%): clomipramina
Hipotensión ortostática (5%): clomipramina
Síncope (2%): clomipramina
Paro cardiaco: clomipramina
Aumento de peso (11%): clomipramina
Sintiéndose nervioso (11%): clomipramina
Leucopenia: clomipramina, claritromicina
Hepatotoxicidad: clomipramina, claritromicina
Hepatitis colestásica: claritromicina
Reacción anafiláctica: claritromicina
Con base en sus respuestas e información científica, evaluamos el riesgo individual de efectos secundarios adversos. Estas recomendaciones están destinadas a asesorar a los profesionales y no sustituyen la consulta con un médico. En la versión de prueba restringida (alfa), el riesgo de todas las sustancias aún no se ha evaluado de manera concluyente.
Abstract: The influence of the sparteine and the S-mephenytoin oxidation polymorphisms on the kinetics of clomipramine were investigated in 25 healthy volunteers: 10 extensive metabolizers of sparteine and mephenytoin (EMs/EMm), nine poor metabolizers of sparteine and extensive metabolizers of mephenytoin (PMs/EMm), five extensive metabolizers of sparteine and poor metabolizers of mephenytoin (EMs/PMm), and one poor metabolizer of sparteine and mephenytoin (PMs/PMm). A single oral dose of 100 mg clomipramine hydrochloride was given to each subject after an overnight fast. Serum and urine levels of clomipramine and its metabolites were monitored after 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 11, 14, 24, 36, 48, and 96 hours. Additional serum was monitored after 6, 9, 12, and 15 days in the poor metabolizers. 2-Hydroxyclomipramine was undetectable in most subjects before enzymatic hydrolysis of serum and urine. The total median clearance of clomipramine was 99 L.hr-1 (range, 68 to 210) in the EMs/EMm subjects, 56 L.hr-1 (range, 37 to 183) in the PMs/EMm subjects, 66 L.hr-1 (range, 37 to 89) in the EMs/PMm subjects, and 43 L.hr-1 in the PMs/PMm subject. It was significantly lower in PMs/EMm and EMs/PMm subjects compared with EMs/EMm subjects (p = 0.006 and 0.028, respectively; Mann-Whitney). In addition, the formation clearance of 2-hydroxyclomipramine and the hydroxylation indexes were significantly lower in PMs/EMm subjects, as was the demethylation index in EMs/PMm subjects compared with EMs/EMm subjects. Our data thus provide evidence that the 2- and 8-hydroxylation of clomipramine are catalyzed by CYP2D6 and that the N-demethylation is catalyzed in part by CYP2C.
Abstract: Erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin are clinically effective for the treatment of common respiratory and skin/skin-structure infections. Erythromycin and azithromycin are also effective for treatment of nongonococcal urethritis and cervicitis due to Chlamydia trachomatis. Compared with erythromycin, clarithromycin and azithromycin offer improved tolerability. Clarithromycin, however, is more similar to erythromycin in pharmacokinetic measures such as half-life, tissue distribution, and drug interactions. Misunderstandings about differences among the macrolides (erythromycin and clarithromycin) and the azalide (azithromycin) in terms of pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics, spectrum of activity, safety, and cost are common. The uptake and release of these compounds by white blood cells and fibroblasts account for differences in tissue half-life, volume of distribution, intracellular:extracellular ratio, and in vivo potency. Although microbiologic studies reveal that gram-positive pathogens are equally susceptible to these agents, significantly more isolates of Haemophilus influenzae are susceptible to azithromycin than to erythromycin or clarithromycin. Concentrations achieved at the infection site and duration above the minimum inhibitory concentration are as important as in vitro activity in determining in vivo activity against bacterial pathogens. Analysis of safety data indicates differences among these agents in drug interactions and use in pregnancy. Analysis of safety data reveals pharmacokinetic drug interactions for erythromycin and clarithromycin with theophylline, terfenadine, and carbamazepine that are not found with azithromycin. Both erythromycin and azithromycin are pregnancy category B drugs; clarithromycin is a category C drug. The numerous differences in pharmacokinetics, microbiology, safety, and costs among erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin can be used in the judicious selection of treatment for indicated infections.
Abstract: Incidence of serotonin syndrome was determined by two different diagnostic criteria during clomipramine monotherapy. Incidence, determined by Sternbach's criteria, was 12.1% (8/66 patients), and that determined by the criteria of Dursun et al. was 3.0% (2/66 patients). The two patients who met the latter criteria also met the former criteria. The lower incidence with the latter was attributable to the fact that it does not include certain symptoms, such as tremors and diaphoresis, which are included in the former, and were seen in a relatively large number of patients; as well as the fact that the latter more strictly define certain symptoms. Both criteria have pros and cons. Sternbach's diagnostic criteria make it possible to diagnose serotonin syndrome in a wider range of patients, but they sometimes make it difficult to make it differential diagnosis in the presence of certain limited symptoms. In contrast, the criteria of Dursun et al. may make a more accurate diagnosis possible, though only in severe cases.
Abstract: No Abstract available
Abstract: To investigate whether grapefruit juice inhibits the metabolism of clarithromycin, 12 healthy subjects were given water or grapefruit juice before and after a clarithromycin dose of 500 mg in a randomized crossover study. Administration of grapefruit juice increased the time to peak concentration of both clarithromycin (82 +/- 35 versus 148 +/- 83 min; P = 0.02) and 14-hydroxyclarithromycin (84 +/- 38 min versus 173 +/- 85; P = 0.01) but did not affect other pharmacokinetic parameters.
Abstract: No Abstract available
Abstract: No Abstract available
Abstract: Clarithromycin is a macrolide antibacterial that differs in chemical structure from erythromycin by the methylation of the hydroxyl group at position 6 on the lactone ring. The pharmacokinetic advantages that clarithromycin has over erythromycin include increased oral bioavailability (52 to 55%), increased plasma concentrations (mean maximum concentrations ranged from 1.01 to 1.52 mg/L and 2.41 to 2.85 mg/L after multiple 250 and 500 mg doses, respectively), and a longer elimination half-life (3.3 to 4.9 hours) to allow twice daily administration. In addition, clarithromycin has extensive diffusion into saliva, sputum, lung tissue, epithelial lining fluid, alveolar macrophages, neutrophils, tonsils, nasal mucosa and middle ear fluid. Clarithromycin is primarily metabolised by cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A isozymes and has an active metabolite, 14-hydroxyclarithromycin. The reported mean values of total body clearance and renal clearance in adults have ranged from 29.2 to 58.1 L/h and 6.7 to 12.8 L/h, respectively. In patients with severe renal impairment, increased plasma concentrations and a prolonged elimination half-life for clarithromycin and its metabolite have been reported. A dosage adjustment for clarithromycin should be considered in patients with a creatinine clearance < 1.8 L/h. The recommended goal for dosage regimens of clarithromycin is to ensure that the time that unbound drug concentrations in the blood remains above the minimum inhibitory concentration is at least 40 to 60% of the dosage interval. However, the concentrations and in vitro activity of 14-hydroxyclarithromycin must be considered for pathogens such as Haemophilus influenzae. In addition, clarithromycin achieves significantly higher drug concentrations in the epithelial lining fluid and alveolar macrophages, the potential sites of extracellular and intracellular respiratory tract pathogens, respectively. Further studies are needed to determine the importance of these concentrations of clarithromycin at the site of infection. Clarithromycin can increase the steady-state concentrations of drugs that are primarily depend upon CYP3A metabolism (e.g., astemidole, cisapride, pimozide, midazolam and triazolam). This can be clinically important for drugs that have a narrow therapeutic index, such as carbamazepine, cyclosporin, digoxin, theophylline and warfarin. Potent inhibitors of CYP3A (e.g., omeprazole and ritonavir) may also alter the metabolism of clarithromycin and its metabolites. Rifampicin (rifampin) and rifabutin are potent enzyme inducers and several small studies have suggested that these agents may significantly decrease serum clarithromycin concentrations. Overall, the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic studies suggest that fewer serious drug interactions occur with clarithromycin compared with older macrolides such as erythromycin and troleandomycin.
Abstract: Two cases of QT prolongation and torsades de pointes (TdP) are presented. The patients had been taking clarithromycin (400 mg/day) for respiratory disease. Although erythromycin is reportedly associated with TdP, this is the first report of clarithromycin associated with TdP in the absence of other drugs already known to produce QT prolongation.
Abstract: The QT interval measuring depolarisation and repolarisation has, when lengthened, been implicated as a risk factor for the development of torsades de pointes and sudden death, particularly in patients predisposed to these complications due to cardiovascular impairment. Since some of the medications used in psychiatry have been implicated, an extensive review of available literature was made of the major classes, including antipsychotics, antidepressants, lithium, anticonvulsants and benzodiazepines. Further, where no publications were found on a particular medication, the pharmaceutical firms responsible for these items were contacted concerning possibly unpublished data. Results of the survey indicate that there may be difficulty in one of three situations: immediate (in the first minutes to hours after oral or parenteral administration), short-term use of 4 - 12 weeks or long-term use of 6 months. Based on this approach, the greatest concern is directed at the immediate application of haloperidol, droperidol, pimozide and trazodone, the short-term use of thioridazine, pimozide, sertindole, nortriptyline, clomipramine, doxepin and the long-term use of clozapine, olanzapine and carbamazepine. It is of interest that a reduction in QTc is reported with aripiprazole. Among the antidepressants, the tertiary tricyclic antidepressants (imipramine, amitriptyline and doxepin) appear to have a more general impact, while the secondary tricyclic antidepressants (nortriptyline, desipramine) may impact more on children and the elderly. Among other antidepressants, the only reports of torsades de pointes appeared to occur with mirtazapine. It was also of interest to find data showing no effect or reductions in QTc produced by sertraline, citalopram, paroxetine and bupropion in multiple studies. Effects of medications on other heart parameters are also briefly reviewed. In particular, the safety of sertraline in post-MI patients and of bupropion in heart disease patients is highlighted. Little information was available on other classes of medications used in psychiatric disorders. What is available concerning lithium, the anticonvulsants and the benzodiazepines indicates little effect on the QTc, although there may be effects on other cardiovascular parameters.
Abstract: BACKGROUND: Several antipsychotic agents are known to prolong the QT interval in a dose dependent manner. Corrected QT interval (QTc) exceeding a threshold value of 450 ms may be associated with an increased risk of life threatening arrhythmias. Antipsychotic agents are often given in combination with other psychotropic drugs, such as antidepressants, that may also contribute to QT prolongation. This observational study compares the effects observed on QT interval between antipsychotic monotherapy and psychoactive polytherapy, which included an additional antidepressant or lithium treatment. METHOD: We examined two groups of hospitalized women with Schizophrenia, Bipolar Disorder and Schizoaffective Disorder in a naturalistic setting. Group 1 was composed of nineteen hospitalized women treated with antipsychotic monotherapy (either haloperidol, olanzapine, risperidone or clozapine) and Group 2 was composed of nineteen hospitalized women treated with an antipsychotic (either haloperidol, olanzapine, risperidone or quetiapine) with an additional antidepressant (citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, paroxetine, fluvoxamine, mirtazapine, venlafaxine or clomipramine) or lithium. An Electrocardiogram (ECG) was carried out before the beginning of the treatment for both groups and at a second time after four days of therapy at full dosage, when blood was also drawn for determination of serum levels of the antipsychotic.Statistical analysis included repeated measures ANOVA, Fisher Exact Test and Indipendent T Test. RESULTS: Mean QTc intervals significantly increased in Group 2 (24 +/- 21 ms) however this was not the case in Group 1 (-1 +/- 30 ms) (Repeated measures ANOVA p < 0,01). Furthermore we found a significant difference in the number of patients who exceeded the threshold of borderline QTc interval value (450 ms) between the two groups, with seven patients in Group 2 (38%) compared to one patient in Group 1 (7%) (Fisher Exact Text, p < 0,05). CONCLUSIONS: No significant prolongation of the QT interval was found following monotherapy with an antipsychotic agent, while combination of these drugs with antidepressants caused a significant QT prolongation. Careful monitoring of the QT interval is suggested in patients taking a combined treatment of antipsychotic and antidepressant agents.
Abstract: OBJECTIVE: To assess the potential of anticholinergic drugs as a cause of non-degenerative mild cognitive impairment in elderly people. DESIGN: Longitudinal cohort study. SETTING: 63 randomly selected general practices in the Montpellier region of southern France. PARTICIPANTS: 372 people aged > 60 years without dementia at recruitment. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: Anticholinergic burden from drug use, cognitive examination, and neurological assessment. RESULTS: 9.2% of subjects continuously used anticholinergic drugs during the year before cognitive assessment. Compared with non-users, they had poorer performance on reaction time, attention, delayed non-verbal memory, narrative recall, visuospatial construction, and language tasks but not on tasks of reasoning, immediate and delayed recall of wordlists, and implicit memory. Eighty per cent of the continuous users were classified as having mild cognitive impairment compared with 35% of non-users, and anticholinergic drug use was a strong predictor of mild cognitive impairment (odds ratio 5.12, P = 0.001). No difference was found between users and non-users in risk of developing dementia at follow-up after eight years. CONCLUSIONS: Elderly people taking anticholinergic drugs had significant deficits in cognitive functioning and were highly likely to be classified as mildly cognitively impaired, although not at increased risk for dementia. Doctors should assess current use of anticholinergic drugs in elderly people with mild cognitive impairment before considering administration of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.
Abstract: Anticholinergic Drug Scale (ADS) scores were previously associated with serum anticholinergic activity (SAA) in a pilot study. To replicate these results, the association between ADS scores and SAA was determined using simple linear regression in subjects from a study of delirium in 201 long-term care facility residents who were not included in the pilot study. Simple and multiple linear regression models were then used to determine whether the ADS could be modified to more effectively predict SAA in all 297 subjects. In the replication analysis, ADS scores were significantly associated with SAA (R2 = .0947, P < .0001). In the modification analysis, each model significantly predicted SAA, including ADS scores (R2 = .0741, P < .0001). The modifications examined did not appear useful in optimizing the ADS. This study replicated findings on the association of the ADS with SAA. Future work will determine whether the ADS is clinically useful for preventing anticholinergic adverse effects.
Abstract: BACKGROUND: Nonchemotherapy drug-induced agranulocytosis is a rare adverse reaction that is characterized by a decrease in peripheral neutrophil count to less than 0.5 x 10(9) cells/L due to immunologic or cytotoxic mechanisms. PURPOSE: To systematically review case reports of drugs that are definitely or probably related to agranulocytosis. DATA SOURCES: English-language and German-language reports in MEDLINE (1966 to 2006) or EMBASE (1989 to 2006) and in bibliographies of retrieved articles. STUDY SELECTION: Published case reports of patients with nonchemotherapy drug-induced agranulocytosis. DATA EXTRACTION: One reviewer abstracted details about cases and assessed causality between drug intake and agranulocytosis by using World Health Organization assessment criteria. DATA SYNTHESIS: Causality assessments of 980 reported cases of agranulocytosis were definite in 56 (6%), probable in 436 (44%), possible in 481 (49%), and unlikely in 7 (1%). A total of 125 drugs were definitely or probably related to agranulocytosis. Drugs for which more than 10 reports were available (carbimazole, clozapine, dapsone, dipyrone, methimazole, penicillin G, procainamide, propylthiouracil, rituximab, sulfasalazine, and ticlopidine) accounted for more than 50% of definite or probable reports. Proportions of fatal cases decreased between 1966 and 2006. More patients with a neutrophil count nadir less than 0.1 x 10(9) cells/L had fatal complications than did those with a neutrophil count nadir of 0.1 x 10(9) cells/L or greater (10% vs. 3%; P < 0.001). Patients treated with hematopoietic growth factors had a shorter median duration of neutropenia (8 days vs. 9 days; P = 0.015) and, among asymptomatic patients at diagnosis, had a lower proportion of infectious or fatal complications (14% vs. 29%; P = 0.030) than patients without such treatment. LIMITATIONS: Case reports cannot provide rates of drug-induced complications, sometimes incompletely assess or describe important details, and sometimes emphasize atypical features and outcomes. CONCLUSIONS: Many drugs can cause nonchemotherapy drug-induced agranulocytosis. Case fatality may be decreasing over time with the availability of better treatment.
Abstract: The involvement of intestinal permeability in the oral absorption of clarithromycin (CAM), a macrolide antibiotic, and telithromycin (TEL), a ketolide antibiotic, in the presence of efflux transporters was examined. In order independently to examine the intestinal and hepatic availability, CAM and TEL (10 mg/kg) were administered orally, intraportally and intravenously to rats. The intestinal and hepatic availability was calculated from the area under the plasma concentration-time curve (AUC) after administration of CAM and TEL via different routes. The intestinal availabilities of CAM and TEL were lower than their hepatic availabilities. The intestinal availability after oral administration of CAM and TEL increased by 1.3- and 1.6-fold, respectively, after concomitant oral administration of verapamil as a P-glycoprotein (P-gp) inhibitor. Further, an in vitro transport experiment was performed using Caco-2 cell monolayers as a model of intestinal epithelial cells. The apical-to-basolateral transport of CAM and TEL through the Caco-2 cell monolayers was lower than their basolateral-to-apical transport. Verapamil and bromosulfophthalein as a multidrug resistance-associated proteins (MRPs) inhibitor significantly increased the apical-to-basolateral transport of CAM and TEL. Thus, the results suggest that oral absorption of CAM and TEL is dependent on intestinal permeability that may be limited by P-gp and MRPs on the intestinal epithelial cells.
Abstract: Transporters in proximal renal tubules contribute to the disposition of numerous drugs. Furthermore, the molecular mechanisms of tubular secretion have been progressively elucidated during the past decades. Organic anions tend to be secreted by the transport proteins OAT1, OAT3 and OATP4C1 on the basolateral side of tubular cells, and multidrug resistance protein (MRP) 2, MRP4, OATP1A2 and breast cancer resistance protein (BCRP) on the apical side. Organic cations are secreted by organic cation transporter (OCT) 2 on the basolateral side, and multidrug and toxic compound extrusion (MATE) proteins MATE1, MATE2/2-K, P-glycoprotein, organic cation and carnitine transporter (OCTN) 1 and OCTN2 on the apical side. Significant drug-drug interactions (DDIs) may affect any of these transporters, altering the clearance and, consequently, the efficacy and/or toxicity of substrate drugs. Interactions at the level of basolateral transporters typically decrease the clearance of the victim drug, causing higher systemic exposure. Interactions at the apical level can also lower drug clearance, but may be associated with higher renal toxicity, due to intracellular accumulation. Whereas the importance of glomerular filtration in drug disposition is largely appreciated among clinicians, DDIs involving renal transporters are less well recognized. This review summarizes current knowledge on the roles, quantitative importance and clinical relevance of these transporters in drug therapy. It proposes an approach based on substrate-inhibitor associations for predicting potential tubular-based DDIs and preventing their adverse consequences. We provide a comprehensive list of known drug interactions with renally-expressed transporters. While many of these interactions have limited clinical consequences, some involving high-risk drugs (e.g. methotrexate) definitely deserve the attention of prescribers.
Abstract: BACKGROUND: Anticholinergic drugs put elderly patients at a higher risk for falls, cognitive decline, and delirium as well as peripheral adverse reactions like dry mouth or constipation. Prescribers are often unaware of the drug-based anticholinergic burden (ACB) of their patients. This study aimed to develop an anticholinergic burden score for drugs licensed in Germany to be used by clinicians at prescribing level. METHODS: A systematic literature search in pubmed assessed previously published ACB tools. Quantitative grading scores were extracted, reduced to drugs available in Germany, and reevaluated by expert discussion. Drugs were scored as having no, weak, moderate, or strong anticholinergic effects. Further drugs were identified in clinical routine and included as well. RESULTS: The literature search identified 692 different drugs, with 548 drugs available in Germany. After exclusion of drugs due to no systemic effect or scoring of drug combinations (n = 67) and evaluation of 26 additional identified drugs in clinical routine, 504 drugs were scored. Of those, 356 drugs were categorised as having no, 104 drugs were scored as weak, 18 as moderate and 29 as having strong anticholinergic effects. CONCLUSIONS: The newly created ACB score for drugs authorized in Germany can be used in daily clinical practice to reduce potentially inappropriate medications for elderly patients. Further clinical studies investigating its effect on reducing anticholinergic side effects are necessary for validation.